yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (1 Cor 8.6)
A little while ago I post a few thoughts on this passage, including the possibility that Paul is adding Jesus as a “second power” to the Shema, and not (as Bauckham would say) adding Jesus to the “divine identity”. I can’t say I know many scholars who have argued for the former (I believe James McGrath does though). Can anyone out there in the biblioblogging world point me in the direction of any literature that argues that this is what Paul was doing.