Linguistics is a hobby of mine, though I’m by no means even quasi-competent in it. I just know a smattering of stuff related to the field that I have picked up over the last few years since I started studying Greek (and, more recently, German).
One thing I have heard repeatedly is that the English language has no future tense. Isn’t that statement – the English language has no future tense – as it stands, false? Or at least inaccurate? What I mean is, wouldn’t it be much more accurate to say that there is no inflectional morphemes in English that denote the future tense. In other words, even though there isn’t an inflectional pattern in English for the future tense as there is for the past (“-ed”) and the present/non-past (“-ing”), one can still legitimately speak of a future tense in English, because while tense is marked out in English by inflection, it isn’t exclusively relegated to inflectional morphemes on the main verb; auxiliary verbs can also denote tense. Thus, there is such a thing as “future tense” in English, but it is found in auxiliaries rather than morphemes.